The Israelites as Missionaries?

One of the early chapters of the Perspectives homework claimed that God did send Israelites to the whole nation with the Great Commission. The author (Walter C. Kaiser) used three texts: Gen 12:1-3, Ex 19:4-6 & Psalm 67. I agree that the Old Testament has the missionary vision all over it, but I'm not convinced that the Israelites of the OT were supposed to actually go to the nations to proclaim God's salvation.

The key people in the OT that he used in the intro to demonstrate his point were: Melchizedek (Gen 14), Jethro (Ex 18), Balaam (Num 23-24), and Jonah. Now, I agree that these people were Gentiles or went to the Gentiles. But were they special cases?

Here's my key question I can't get off my mind: Did God want all nations to have salvation in Him before He sent His son to live and die on earth?

See, the author was clear that the 3 texts I mentioned in Gen, Ex & Psalms are not the only texts in the OT and that there aren't many texts in the OT that are really explicit about missions. He claims that the OT has a general sense of missions throughout. And I totally agree. My problem is that I see it slightly differently. I see it as God wants His fame in every nation, but not necessary salvation for every nation...yet. The OT is filled with "...and then they will know that I am Yahweh God." He says it for Israel and for different nations. But the impression I get from the OT is that that's all God wants from non-Israelites right now - He just wants them to recognize Him and for Him to be completely famous across the earth...for His glory but not their salvation.

In Amos 1 & 2 God proclaims judgment on many nations and also Israel. Each judgment shows the same pattern and each one gives a reason. Here they are:

• "Because [Damascus] threshed Gilead with sledges having iron teeth..."
• "Because [Gaza] took captive whole communities and sold them to Edom..."
• "Because [Tyre] sold whole communities of captives to Edom, disregarding a treaty of brotherhood..."
• "Because [Ammon] ripped open the pregnant women of Gilead in order to extend his borders..."
• "Because [Moab] burned, as if to lime, the bones of Edom's king..."
• "Because [Israel has] rejected the law of Yahweh and have not kept His decrees, because they have been led astray by false gods, the gods their ancestors followed..."

Doesn't it seem like Israel is slightly different than the nations? The nations are ripping people to pieces and Israel isn't following their God. This is just one example of how I don't see God having a desire to be the God of the nations during the period of the OT. Especially when He says in Amos 3:2 "You only have I chosen of all the families of the earth." It seems pretty clear to me that Israel and Israel only is the chosen nation among nations to be God's people. Do we ever hear God saying to other nations, "And you shall be my people and I shall be your God"? Not that I know of.

The whole thing has me confused, so if you can shed any light, I'd appreciate it.